Lucas S asked 8 years ago
I noticed that the definition for pivot chord modulation includes an applied dominant, but it seems to me like the example in Harmony 2-3 (CM-em) does not include an applied dominant. Am I missing this chord somewhere or misunderstanding the definition?
Jon Brantingham Staff answered 8 years ago
Lucas,
In the example from Harmony 2-3, the progression goes:
I – IV – ii – V7 – I – vi / iv (in Em) – V7 – I.
The vi / iv is the pivot chord. Following that is the V7 which is a B7. This is the applied dominant. Because we modulated I wrote it as a V7, but in the key of C major, it would be considered an applied dominant.
Remember, the applied dominant is required to confirm the new key, not to create the pivot chord. The pivot, by it’s nature of being in both the original key and the new key, does not need an applied dominant before it.
also, the website won’t let me edit this question for some reason (that’s why the title is messed up)